I like fresh perspectives.

The older the tradition, the more reliable it is.
Kind of like the Holy Sepulcher.

The argument for the midrashic method is compelling. and demands, therefore, that the verse(s) in question be examined in context.

It is a reasonable guess that The Master was referring to Jonah 1:17.

"And the LORD appointed a great fish to swallow up Jonah. And Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights." (ESV)

I guess the next step is to look at the Hebrew and LXX Greek for this verse.

I've got some reading to do.

Thanks, Toby

Crispin | April 16, 2008 5:24 PM

Brother Toby,

Not only is the Greek word translated "preparation day" only used in the context of the preparation day before the Shabbat, but it is the greek word for "Friday" as it were.

I think where most people get confused (and rightly so) is when trying to implement the "three days and three nights" passage from Matthew. I do not personally think that this is speaking of the Burial and Resurrection, but is speaking of his seder, arrest and trial in the "heart of the Land" (i.e. Jerusalem), where he is up until he was crucified. If this reading is correct, then there would no longer be a contradiction when in all three synoptic gospels and Acts the timing of the Resurrection is consistently "on the third day" or "after the third day [has arrived]."

Keep up the excellent work!

Shalom

Brian T | April 17, 2008 5:27 AM

It would seem to me that "day of preparation" might refer to the day before any Sabbath. (And the 1st and 7th days of Pesach could be called Sabbaths since they are days of convocation.) So, while we might not have any specific example of the phrase being used to describe a day other than Friday, I'm not comfortable with jumping to an automatic conclusion that it must be refering to Friday.

My big question to those who hold to a strict Wednesday crucifixion, with Thursday being the "High Day" is: Why couldn't Mary bring the spices to the tomb on Friday morning? Why wait until Sunday?

Which then leads to the other question that I have: Why did Mary need to bring spices at all? Joseph of Aramatheia had already used 100 pounds of spices and had followed the burial custom. So what more did Mary need to do?

Daniel | April 17, 2008 10:07 AM

To answer Daniel, Mark 16 tells us that the woman after Shabbat (High Holy Day) was over, went and bought spices in order to go annoint Yeshua. Luke 23:54 -56 tells us that after they saw where Yeshua was placed, went back home and pepared spices & annointments, (Friday most likley),went home rested according to the commandment and on first day of the week, went to the tomb with their spices only to find Yeshua not there.

John 11:8b Yeshua answered ,"Aren't there twelve hours of daylight? That should define their reference to length of days and nights as a general rule.

Jim

**Toby's Response:** Jim, this is a great passage to bring up. The way I read this passage in Luke, the women saw where He was buried immediately after Joseph of Arimathea buries Him. They buy spices and then rest on Shabbat. I don't see a time gap here between when He is buried and when the women come.

In regards to the passage in John, I am of the opinion that the Master is citing the traditional halachah of dividing the daylight into twelve hours. I'm not really sure this carries over into the "three days and three nights" discussion. Like I mentioned above I think this is more of a midrash flavor rather than literal.

Jim Moore | April 17, 2008 4:20 PM

The Catholic encyclopedia (newadvent.org) states the following regarding the definition and etymology of Good Friday—Good Friday, called Feria VI in Parasceve in the Roman Missal, he hagia kai megale paraskeue (the Holy and Great Friday) in the Greek Liturgy, Holy Friday in Romance Languages, Charfreitag (Sorrowful Friday) in German, is the English designation of Friday in Holy Week—that is, the Friday on which the Church keeps the anniversary of the Crucifixion of Jesus Christ.

Parasceve, the Latin equivalent of paraskeue, preparation (i.e. the preparation that was made on the sixth day for the Sabbath; see Mark 15:42), came by metonymy to signify the day on which the preparation was made; but while the Greeks retained this use of the word as applied to every Friday, the Latins confined its application to one Friday. Irenaeus and Tertullian speak of Good Friday as the day of the Pasch; but later writers distinguish between the Pascha staurosimon (the passage to death), and the Pascha anastasimon (the passage to life, i.e. the Resurrection). At present the word Pasch is used exclusively in the latter sense. The two Paschs are the oldest feasts in the calendar.

From the earliest times the Christians kept every Friday as a feast day; and the obvious reasons for those usages explain why Easter is the Sunday par excellence, and why the Friday which marks the anniversary of Christ's death came to be called the Great or the Holy or the Good Friday. The origin of the term Good is not clear. Some say it is from "God's Friday" (Gottes Freitag); others maintain that it is from the German Gute Freitag, and not specially English. Sometimes, too, the day was called Long Friday by the Anglo-Saxons; so today in Denmark.

The Catholic encyclopedia states regarding the antiquity of the Celebration of Holy Week (the interval between Palm Sunday and Easter Day is known par excellence as Holy Week)—From an attentive study of the Gospels, and particularly that of St. John, it might easily be inferred that already in Apostolic times a certain emphasis was laid upon the memory of the last week of Jesus Christ's mortal life. The supper at Bethania must have taken place on the Saturday, "six days before the pasch" (John 12:1-2), and the triumphant entry into Jerusalem was made from there the next morning (Sunday).

If the tradition of the Catholic Church is correct, and crucifixion takes place on a Friday, which would make the 14th of Nisan a Friday of that week, then the Triumphal entry could not have been the previous Sunday, as that would have been the 9th of Nisan, not the 10th.

Could you explain how both traditions could both be correct considering the dates that HaShem instructs (cf. Exodus 12:3, 6)?

**Toby's Response:** I guess if you follow my theory that would make it Palm Monday. I'm not sure how both could work out to be correct.

Daniel F | April 18, 2008 1:34 PM

Interesting observations and comments. Well worth the time to study them and to do the research.

To assist the time-line studies, however, I would recommend using the Hebrew Lunar-Calendar in use during the Messianic era - even it one thinks it inappropriate to that calendar today. But, I think it might make it easer to keep the days and events in single Hebrew referenced times-line, rather than attempting to tie the events to calendars not in use at the time. For example, 14 Nissen was always a Shabbat, and at Pesach, it was always a Shabbat HaGadol (High Sabbath - Jn 19:31).

From this point of reference, I think Toby Janicki's approach might well fit nicely.

An aside: Saturday did not become a 7th day Sabbath and Sunday the first day of the week until the 4th century. See Jewish Ency., s.v. “Hillel II”.

**Toby's Response:** I appreciate your comments but respectfully disagree with the lunar Shabbat theory. I feel it has no historical credibility. Hillel helped fix the calendar as it is today when the Sanhedrin was disappearing but neither he nor anyone else in the Jewish community changed the Shabbat day.

A.W. Bowman | April 22, 2008 9:27 AM

One problem with the Friday crucifixion is that it has Yeshua traveling a long distance on Sabbath six days previously (John 12:1).

**Toby's Response:** Can you explain why we would have to reckon it like this with a Friday crucifixion? Six days before Passover would be Sunday.

Maureen (Renah) | April 22, 2008 1:29 PM

I think you may be going about this in the wrong direction.

Let me explain.
Like you, I also have gone around the circle on this question. But in answer to the question: "What day was Yeshua crucified?"-- the answer should not be "Friday," but rather, "it doesn't matter."

What day of the week is irrelevant. The point is that he was crucified on Nisan 14 at the same time as the lambs were being slain. This day can fall on any day of the week (well, the rabbinical calendar corrections may not allow that-- or perhaps one follows the Karaite calendar-- but I digress...)

Among the people questioning the day of the crucifixion, I don't see anyone advocating following a new "Good Wednesday" or "Good Thursday" tradition. I would think that most people reading this, like me, celebrate the memorial of Messiah's death on Nisan 14 during the Passover seder-- regardless of the day of the week.

The prophetic meaning of the day of the month means more than the day of the week.
Bryan

**Toby's Response:** I agree with you. I was merely suggesting a new approach (or not so new approach) to three days and three nights.

Bryan Bain | April 22, 2008 4:19 PM

Also I think we have to keep in mind that He was raised on first fruits, was he not? This may or may not help to clear up the length of time Yeshua was in the tomb.
Shalom -
Maria

Maria | May 12, 2008 2:46 PM

Thanks for driving me back into the scriptures. Friday death only works by special pleading regarding "third day" where Friday itself is regarded as first day. If it were "first day" instead of "third day" no one would imagine it meant anything but Saturday - so "third day" should mean Monday!

The one universally agreed anchor-point is that the tomb was found empty on Sunday morning. Most people seem to slide into believing that that is also when the resurrection took place, but the scriptures say no such thing.

There is another very clear anchor point about a week before, and I have written up a timeline moving from that point to the next, harmonizing the gospels, which makes it clear that the Messiah's death did occur Wednesday afternoon. Since He was raised "in the spirit" no-one outside the tomb would necessarily have known the exact time. I go with the Jonah timing.

My timeline-paper is far too long for this space (3 pages), but readers are welcome to e-mail me for it.

**Toby's Response:** How do you explain that the disciples were on the road to Emmaus with the Master on the third day (Luke 24:21)?

Basil Fernie | May 14, 2008 4:42 PM

I would agree that it fell on the 14th of Nissan, which would fall on different day of the week in different years. The greeks however, to make it coincide with the feast of Ishtar (Yes Ishtar, that is what Easter is do the research) would keep it on the day of the week rather than on the date of the month. Just as they changed the day of Sabbath meaning 7th, which was given from the foundation of the world rather than just to the decendants of Jacob. It was revisited to these decendants because they had been living in bondage for 400 yrs. The Creator of teh world established the Feast when did he give man authority to change them? Never so the feast that was established by the greeks are invalid. Obediance is to be to our HEavenly Father no to man. Yashua did not change these remember he came to do the will of the Father, not his own will or the will of man.

**Toby's Response:** Just to clarify, I believe that that year the Master died the 14th was a Friday not that we should celebrate Friday every year.

I

Mary | May 14, 2008 5:23 PM

Oh yes, the actual day of preparation for the Jews is Thursday. This is done that they do not get caught on Sabbath Eve unfinished with Sabbath preparations and doing this work on the Sabbath so therefore, since it states the day of preparation it would have been the Thursday not the Friday. Conservatives sometimes do not hold to this strick tradition and may do it on Friday. But the Greeks were so against anything that was Judism they changed all things involved with christanity to coincide with the pagan hoiliday and implemented the practices as well. In reading the Catholic encyclopedia you will find in the different Creeds how they changed them and justified it by saying their decisions were greater than the Creators. Please do the research the root of these holidays.

**Toby's Response:** I have never heard of the Day of preparation begin Thursday. Do you have any sources that back this up?

Mary | May 14, 2008 5:36 PM

Interesting discussions have been raised on this subject.
I would also like to put my views forward.

From my understanding of the bible, there are two Sabbaths involved in this particular Passover feast on which the Mashiach was executed, buried & resurrected.

The Gospels tell us that as a sabbath was approaching, and by Jewish requirements in practice at that time, no body must be left hanging on the stake on the holy days (sabbath), an urgent application was made to the Roman Governor to release Yahshua's body so it can be buried before the holy day (sabbath) begins.
The request was granted and Joseph of Arithmatia with the two Miriams plus maybe others, have to quickly bury the body before sabbath begins and they only have less than three hours or so to do that (now remember that in God's order, a day begins at evening, not at midnight or morning as our way of thinking nowdays).

Nathan Aputi | June 12, 2008 2:59 PM

There was not enough time to prepare the body well before the burial so a quick temporary job was done including a temporary burial site pending a proper preparation and burial after the holy day rest.
Neither the two Miryams had time to buy and prepare the oil and spices required. They only had time to follow and see where their beloved Master was temporarily laid in.

So what holiday was it? This is the holy convocation day according to Leviticus 23 - the first day of the Unleavened Bread, a sabbath. The next day is 2nd day of unleavened day, a working day. Here the Gospels tell us it is the Preparation day and a working day, so preparations were done to prepare for the sabbath. This is the WEEKLY sabbath.

The two Miryams now had time to buy the spices and oils and perfumes required to prepare the Lord's body before the burial. But because the Sabbath according to the COMMANDMENT was coming up, they had to prepare for the Sabbath too so they rested according to the commandment.

**Toby's Response:** Interesting theory. I have heard stuff simlilar to this.

Nathan Aputi | June 12, 2008 3:15 PM

Very early the next day which is now the first day of the week, Sunday, they went to where the Lord was kept and behold, He was not to be found.

Why must they go and prepare the body again if the first quick preparation was not sufficient. Here the Scriptures tells us in Isaiah that he was beaten till he was formless.
Yahsua's body was not the nice and shinny form depicted in postures and statues nowadays. He was formless, beyond recognition as a human form, a mess of pulpy flesh. This requires a long period of time for good dressing before the body is laid to rest. Alas, this cannot be as the Mashiach had been resurrected according to the sign of Jonah, three full days and three full nights. The Wednesday evening burial to Saturday evening resurrection fulfills the sign of Jonah. At 6.00am on the first day (Sunday) the Gospels tell us that his body was not to be found!

Nathan Aputi, Lae, Papua New Guinea

Nathan Aputi | June 12, 2008 3:32 PM

I've heard folks compare "heart of the earth" in Matt. 12:40 to Yerushalayim, but that doesn't seem to fit the story of Yonah nor early believers' association of the Yonah story with baptism, i.e. death and resurrection. "Heart of the earth" is not found in Scripture, but the phrase "heart of the seas" is in Yonah's poetic description of his descent into the seas and thinking he was headed to Sheol as a result. Compare Yonah's psalm about the descent into the "heart of the seas" with Yeshua's blood-sweating agony in the garden on the night/beginning of Aviv 14. Yeshua headed into the "heart of the earth" as Yonah went into the "heart of the seas" before either went into the tomb and the creature's belly, respectively. Otherwise, Matt. 12:40 would be a mixed metaphor because Yonah's "belly time" was a part of his time in the "heart of the seas," not exclusive of it.

Jeff Quackenbush | July 3, 2008 1:38 AM

If the Sabbath day begins at sundown Friday evening to Saturday sundown then wouldn't the preparation day be from Thursday sundown to Friday sundown when Sabbath begins so as not to defile the Sabbath? Linda

**Toby's Response:** Interesting thought, but I don't belive Thursday night is ever called "Preperation Day." I could be wrong, though.

Linda | September 16, 2008 10:31 AM

Shalom Toby,

Here a late comment on your "Good Friday Revisited". I agree with you that the "three days and three nights" saying of Yeshua should be explained within the context of the other chronological data and not the other way round. My point is: Is it not possible to explain this saying Yeshua as a figure of speech, as as Hendiadys, meaning "three days which are really three nights" (speaking of the time he was to be in the sepuchre), or "three days, and nightly days to that"

Geert ter Horst | October 24, 2011 2:05 PM

Hi Toby,
I read all of the comments in response to your article, and yes Mark does say in Mark 16/1 that the purchase of spices happened after the Sabbath was past. Luke states that the preparation of the spices occurred before the 7th day Sabbath. Those are statements that require a workday sandwiched between two Sabbath days.
To further illustrate that a Friday crucifixion presents more problems than it solves, we need to look at Matthew 27/62, where it says: The next day, which was a Sabbath, the Chief Priests and the Pharisees assembled before Pilate to ask him to secure the tomb until the third day. The points here is that if the Chief Priests and the Pharisees went before Pilate on the weekly Sabbath, Pilate would have had to secure the tomb only for 2 days and not 3 days till Monday. Why because Yeshua told them that if they destroy His temple He would rebuilt it in 3 days. Asking for 3 days makes no sense. However if the request was made on Thursday, it makes a lot of sense.

Peter Bissinger | April 9, 2012 6:20 PM